OT: Biblical greek style (was Re: [sword-devel] Evidence Bible...)

[David's Mailing-list and Spam Receiver]

On Wednesday 30 April 2003 03:30 pm, Dave Washburn wrote:
[snipped and reformatted courtesy of my keyboard and kmail :D]
> I'm not sure where you get the idea that he was "in all likelihood
> illiterate," but most likely Greek was a second language to him even by the
> time he had spent several years in Ephesus, so his Greek may have been a
> little shaky.

Well as far as I know first century education was extremely expensive and only 
the rich and scholors could read and write. Furthermore, John was a fisherman 
and of the working class he probably never had any formal education and 
wouldn't have had time nor need to read and write before he met Jesus beyond 
what he would have needed to process fish orders and what not. Now it is 
indeed possible that John learned to read and write after he met Jesus, 
though I don't see much reason to think he was very literate if he was at all 
prior to Jesus. Well unless he was in line to take over dad's fishing 
business then he might have to be literate enough to not get hoodwinked by 
contracts and what have you.

>And since he was writing Koine, it really doesn't matter
> what classical Greek scholars think of it.  That's a little like comparing
> Shakespearean English to Brooklyn colloquial.

Actually, that's kinda the point ^_~

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